Conservative OUTRAGE of the Day

05 Jun 2013 11:43 #11 by Something the Dog Said
So you would disenfranchise someone from their right to vote simply because they moved due to work or personal reasons? Really?

"Remember to always be yourself. Unless you can be batman. Then always be batman." Unknown

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05 Jun 2013 11:52 #12 by FredHayek
Yes, I would.
There are residency limits on people running for political office. And Colorado ran well with restrictions like this in the past.

Thomas Sowell: There are no solutions, just trade-offs.

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05 Jun 2013 15:02 #13 by PrintSmith

Something the Dog Said wrote: So you would disenfranchise someone from their right to vote simply because they moved due to work or personal reasons? Really?

Like all rights, the right to vote is not an unlimited right. It is subject to reasonable restrictions enacted to ensure the integrity of the vote. Which is why it is not unconstitutional to require that a valid photo ID be presented at the polls when one presents themselves to receive their ballot, per the Supreme Court decision, even if that requirement makes it slightly more difficult for some to cast their ballot.

You would, of course, agree that the right to vote, like all of our rights, is not an unlimited one and that it is subject to reasonable restriction, wouldn't you Dog?

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05 Jun 2013 16:33 #14 by Grady

FredHayek wrote: I do believe in adequate safeguards to prevent illegal voting, like requiring people be registered for six months in the district before being allowed to vote.

:thumbsup:

I would add, that if a voter for example was duly registered in county A and moved to county B in the same state they should still be able to vote on state wide issues but not on local issues in either county A or B.

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05 Jun 2013 17:03 #15 by Conan
But people move just before election time all the time, right? I don't think it should take 6 months to verify if someone is officially in the residence they claim, and can't be verified as legally allowed to vote, but yes the right to vote is not unlimited and needs to be confirmed regardless.

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05 Jun 2013 17:10 #16 by FredHayek
When Kansas had an election to decide if they were going to be slave or free back in the last century thousands of Missourians crossed state lines and voted illegally in Kansas.

Thomas Sowell: There are no solutions, just trade-offs.

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05 Jun 2013 17:37 #17 by PrintSmith

Conan wrote: But people move just before election time all the time, right? I don't think it should take 6 months to verify if someone is officially in the residence they claim, and can't be verified as legally allowed to vote, but yes the right to vote is not unlimited and needs to be confirmed regardless.

That's true - they can. And it is not inconceivable, regardless of how unlikely it might be, that enough people would "move" to a different district, say they rented an apartment within that district starting on November 1st solely for the purposes of being able to cast a vote for a candidate from their party in the hopes of ensuring that "they" won the election.

Would it be fraud? You bet your last shiny Roosevelt fiat dime it would be. The problem would be proving that it was done for that purpose after the votes were tallied and a winner declared.

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