Such a catchy, if empty, phrase to use, isn't it? Tell me LJ, what, precisely, is the "fair share" of the tax burden that the evil rich people should be shouldering in your never-to-be-confused-with-logic opinion? The top 1% already pay about 40% of the income taxes, the top 10% pay north of 70% of them, the top 50% pay nearly 98% of them, and the bottom 50% don't even pay 3% of them; so what would be a "fair" percentage for them to pay of all the income taxes?
It's not a empty phrase...And I don't have to defend it.
But if I ever DO decide I want to hear empty phrases, I'll just pull up the last 20-30 of your regurgitated Sovereign Citizen/original-intent bullsh*t posts, and there it will be.
If you wish to hear empty platitudes, you need only listen to your own voice in the echo chamber of your own mind.
Rather than continually spout the empty phrase "their fair share" why not simply substitute the more substantive figure which you claim you have provided multiple times? Thus "the rich finally paying their fair share" would read instead "the rich finally paying 100% of all income taxes" or something to that effect. That would be a much clearer communication on the matter, would it not? There are many, myself included, who feel that when one group is earning less than 20% of all income and paying nearly 40% of all income taxes, they are already not only paying their fair share, they are paying that and then some given that their share of the income tax burden is over twice the percentage of income earned. Why leave the definition uncertain and subject to interpretation when that situation can be easily avoided by clear communication of where one stands?
